1. All of the following are transmitted through the aortic opening of the diaphragm except?
2. Match the list in relation to Brachial plexus A. Branches of the roots I. Musculocutaneous nerve B. Branches of the posterior cord II. Nerve to serratus anterior C. Branches of the lateral cord III. Medial pectoral nerve D. Branches of the trunk IV. Suprascapular nerve
3. Which of the following is true regarding popliteus muscle :
4. Match the following w.r.t lymphatic drainage A. Greater curvature of stomach I. Pancreaticosplenic nodes B. Testis II. Internal iliac nodes C. Prostate gland III. Superior mesenteric nodes D. Head of pancreas IV. Para-aortic nodes
5. If III, IV, VI and ophthalmic nerves are paralysed, the infection is localized to
6. Nucleus receiving impulse of taste are:
7. Time taken for electrical conduct from SA Node to AV node in ECG is
8. Thalamus relay all sensory sensations except?
9. All of the following are examples of negative feedback except?
10.Coagulation factor VII is:
11. HbO2 dissociation curve shifts to left by?
12. Consider the following statement about counter current mechanism in Kidneys A. Occurs due to opposite flow in vasa recta and loop of henle B. Urea plays role in this C. Seen in cortical nephrons D. Helps in creating osmolarity gradient Choose the correct answer from the options given below
13. Sphingomyelinase deficiency is seen in
14. Best Indicator of Iron deficiency is
15. The cycle of malarial parasite is in sequence of : I. Exoerythrocytic stage II. Gametocytic stage III. Erythrocytic stage IV. Sporogony
16. Parasitic intestinal infestation seen in immunosuppressed patient is
17. Which of the following is incorrect regarding carbuncle :
18. Least common site of lung abscess is
19. A patient is suspected to have acoustic neuroma. The investigation of choice for its diagnosis is
20. Which one of the following is not recommended for contact lenses :
21. Consider the following statement regarding Autosomal Recessive disorders A. Disease produced in homozygous states B. Disease produced in heterozygous states C. Recurrence risk is 50% D. Recurrence risk is 25% E. Males and females are affected equally Choose the correct answer from the options given below
22. HLA-DR2/DR3 type is associated with which disease?
23. An 8-year old boy is found to have progressive corneal vascularisation, deafness, notched incisors and flattened nose. The most likely cause of these changes is congenital infection by:
24. A person died due to starvation. Which is correct in such case during autopsy
25. A 25 years old lady died due to some unnatural cause within 7 years of her marriage. The inquest should be done under
26. A 35 year old patient comes to casualty with history of unknown poisoning by some seed/drug. On examination patient presented with dilated pupil, dry mouth and decreased secretions. Which poisoning should the doctor suspect.
27. Given below are two statements: Statement I:Pyoderma gangrenosum is characterised by painful, large ulcer with necrotic base and rolled margins. Statement II:Pathergy test is positive. In the light of the above two statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
28. A patient presents with one month history of abnormal hallucination and delusion. The patient lacks insight to his changed behaviour. Likely diagnosis is:
29. A child has itchy vesicles on face, palm and sole. The diagnosis is:
30. Commonest complication of Meckel’s diverticulum is
31. Arrange the following manifestations of Hansen’s disease in decreasing order of their prevalence BT BB LL HISTOID BL
32. Which of the following are derived from neural crest cells?
33. Fracture of the distal radius is called:
34. Diseases associated with an increased risk of generalised osteoporosis are all except?
35. Popcorn calcification on Chest X-Ray is seen in case of :
36. A patient after road traffic accident suffered from head injuries. What will be the score on Glassgow Coma Scale if there is eye opening in response to verbal stimulus, can localize pain & speech is disoriented and confused:
37. Which of the following can cause mitral regurgitation?
38. Wolf Chaikoff effect is:
39. BRCA1 gene is located on which chromosome?
40. A primary health centre (PHC) reports 40-50 cases in a week in the community. This week there are 48 cases normally based on previous records. This is called:
41. Which of the following drug resistance should be present to call it MDR Tuberculosis?
42. A vaccine campaign has got opened pentavalent & opened MR vaccine. Which is true?
43. Green in triage for disaster is for:
44.Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason(R). Assertion(A):India is in the late expanding phase of the demographic cycle. Reason(R): Birth rate in India is declining rapidly. In the light of the above statements , choose the correct answer from the options given below
45. Following are some statements about Contraceptive MPA (Medroxy progesterone acetate) A. Given by Injection B. One dose is effective for 3 months C. It’s irreversible method D. Can be started immediately after abortion E. Safe for breast feeding mothers Choose the correct ones from the options given below
46. A 46 year old man presented with progressive fatigue & leg swelling. He had no significant past medical history except a front on collision in car he was driving. Examination revealed oedema, raised JVPand an enlarged liver, which seem to be expand during systole. What’s the likely diagnosis?
47. Philadelphia Chromosome refers to
48. Which of the following is false regarding Thalassemia major?
49. A 65 year old man presents with haemoptysis & Grade III clubbing. The most probable diagnosis in this patient is:
50. In Dysphonia plica ventricularis sound is produced by:
51. FEV1/FVC is decreased in?
52. Obesity is most probably associated with decreased risk of?
53. Cranial Nerve 8 palsy causes all except?
54. All are features of Nephrotic Syndrome except?
55. Formication and delusion of persecution occurs together in abuse with
56. Which of the following is not a feature of MODY?
57. Which of the following is false about Scleroderma?
58.Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason(R). Assertion(A): Infant suckling is the main stimulus for continued milk secretion. Reason(R): Sustained high levels of prolactin are needed for continued milk secretion. In the light of the above statements , choose the correct answer from the options given below
59. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason(R). Assertion(A): Psychiatric illness are called functional disorders Reason(R): Psychiatric illness causes lot of functional disability In the light of the above statements , choose the correct answer from the options given below
60. True regarding ‘After pains’ are all except?
62. Cardinal movements of labour are:
63. A 26 year patient complaint of foul smelling greyish white discharge & no pruritus. Saline microscopy is done. Microscopic findings show clue cells. The condition is:
64. A 63 year old lady presents with abdominal mass, weight loss is diagnosed as having ovarian tumour. Most common ovarian tumour in this will be?
65. 28 year old woman with previous history of having baby with Down syndrome is now 12 weeks pregnant. Which of the following would you suggest to her?
66. The word Corrigens means:
67. Match the list A. Symptoms felt by the patient himself I. Aphorism 96 B. Symptoms recognised by attendants II. Aphorism 93 C. Symptoms observed by physician III. Aphorism 84 to 89 D. Hypochondriac patients IV. Aphorism 90
68. Who is called the father of Homoeopathy in India?:
69. The Old school adopted surgical procedure for the following except?
70. Concept of “Know thy self” is given in:
71. Insane person treated by Hahnemann:
72. Consider the following: 1. Patient is mentally dull, heavy and stupid and usually suspicious. 2. Depressed but keep troubles to themselves and sulk over them 3. Sensitive to noise, light and odour 4. Better by cold applications Choose the correct answer from the options given below
73. Who said “Symptoms can be relieved by homoeopathy but the disease remains”
74. Palpitation and rush of blood to head & chest with redness of face & flushed cheeks are characteristics of ______________ miasm:
75. Match the following: A. Melancholic I. Black bile B. Sanguine II. Phlegm C. Phlegmatic III. Yellow bile D. Choleric IV. Blood
76. Pick the odd one out:
77. A woman aged 29 years complained of profuse menses every two weeks after overexertion. The flow is gushing & bright red. Suggest the remedy:
78. “Sensory apathy in low fever when there is stupor, difficulty of arousing patient” is met by this remedy:
79. The remedy for “Yellow color of conjunctiva ; clears up vision after keratitis or kerato-iritis” is :
80. Which remedy may often be repeated in children & should not be repeated in aged people especially if first dose benefitted?:
81. Match the list A. Urine smell of violets I. Uranium nitricum B. Cat like odour of urine II.Cajuputum C. Garlicky odour of urine III. Thyroidinum D. Fish like odour of urine IV. Cuprum ars
82. Given below are statements about Mesmerism A. Was added in 3rd edition of organon of medicine B. Move flat extended hand parallel to body C. About 2 inches above the body D. Silk should be worn E. From top of head to tip of toes Choose the correct answer from the options given below
83. Match the list A. Urticaria without itching I. Astacus fluviatalis B. Urticaria worse hot drinks II. Chloralum C. Urticaria with liver affections III. Uva ursi D. Urticaria with constipation IV. Copaiva
84. The remedy for gout with fibrous deposit in great toe joint , rheumatic , often mistaken for bunion is :
85. “Great weakness; extreme prostration; cannot stand up from weakness” is a symptom of which drug
86. “Aversion to mental exertion; indisposed, or want of power to think” is a symptom of:
87. Match the list A. CA Bladder I. Ornithogalum B. CA Tongue II. Taraxacum C. CA Rectum III. Galium aparine D. CA Caecum IV. Sanguniaria
88. The remedy given in some forms of congestive headache; sunstroke with bursting feeling as if temples would burst, or the eyes would burst out of sockets is
89. Match the list of remedies with their common names A. Hydrastis I. Virginia stonecrop B. Penthorum II. Chickweed C. Stellaria media III. Golden seal D. Pothos IV. Skunk cabbage
90. According to Dr. J.T.Kent the following symptoms are covered by which drug “The patient puts up on an appearance like the maudling of a drunkard, talks with thick lips and thick tongue, half finishing his sentences & his words, leaving g’s of all the present participles”?
91. The expiry date of medicated globules as given by Boenninghausen:
92. The 2nd part Fragmenta de viribus contains repertory. The first part of it contains:
93.Synthetically ethyl alcohol is prepared from:
94. All of the following drugs belong to Class II as per old method of preparation of medicines except?
95. Straight potency was the term given by?
96. Under the chapter Generalities in Kent’s Repertory all of the following rubrics are found except?
97. The book titled “ 50 reasons to be Homoeopath” is written by?
98. Match the list A. Repertory of Urinary organs I. 1880 B. Repertory of Respiratory organs II. 1892 C. Repertory of Respiratory diseases III. 1906 D. Repertory of Digestive system IV. 1899
99. Medicine given in Kent Repertory under the rubric Questions, speak continually in is
100. Match the list A. Yawning I. Respiration B. Voice hoarseness II. Sleep C. Rattling III. Chest D. Palpitations IV. Larynx & Trachea
101. First French Repertory was published in which year & by whom?
102. All of the following belong to the Logico-utilitarian group of repertories except?
103.Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason(R). Assertion(A): Healthy human beings are the ideal provers on whom drug proving should be done. Reason(R): There is no more natural way of accomplishing the peculiar effects of medicine in order to ascertain what changes symptoms signs it is capable of producing. In the light of the above statements , choose the correct answer from the options given below
104. Rubric ‘Fungoid growths’ is given in which chapter in Kent Repertory?:
105. Which of the following statement is not correct for rubric “PULSE”:
106. Remedy given in Phatak’s repertory for the rubric Sterility in Female organs , Acid vaginal secretion from is :
107. Match the list of rubrics with their chapters as per Therapeutic Pocket Book A. Disposition I. Intellect B. Imbecility II. Teeth C. Gums III. Mouth D.Tongue IV. Mind
108. All of the following Kent’sobservation has poor prognosis except:
109. Which of the following statement is incorrect according to BBCR Repertory
110.Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason(R). Assertion(A): Puritan Group of Repertories are meant for the purpose of reference not for proper repertorisation. Reason(R): Symptoms are recorded in the language of provers without much variation. In the light of the above statements , choose the correct answer from the options given below
111. Soft, non-gummy, non-mucilagenous drug substances are used in the process of :
112. The prover makes data entries of the deviations in health in :
113. Which of the following crude drug show golden yellow fluorescence under Ultraviolet light?
114. All of the following have drug strength 1/ 100 except?
115. Who is the author of the book titled “ Keynotes and Redline Symptoms of Materia Medica”?
116.Match the list A. Electro-therapy I. Aphorism 291 B. Magneto-therapy II. Aphorism 290 C. Massage III. Aphorism 286 D. Bath IV. Aphorism 287
117. American Homoeopathic Pharmacopeia was compiled and published by:
118.Select the correct ones about BBCR Repertory A. Boger followed the basic plan of Boenninghausen’s repertory of anti-psorics B. Total no. of medicines are 464 C. Clinical rubrics form one of the fundamental concept of BBCR D. Concordance Chapter contains 126 medicines E. Posthumous edition was published by Boericke & Tafel in India Choose the correct answer from the options given below
119. In Hahnemann’s time a prescription contained four classes of components out of which the Adjuvans stand for :
120. Drug Inspector is appointed in India by:
